Complete CCNA2 Test Answers of 2016
In this post you will find all answers of ccna2 module. Chapter 1,Chapter 2,Chapter 3,Chapter 4,Chapter 5,Chapter 6,Chapter 7,Chapter 8,Chapter 9,Chapter 10,Chapter 11 & Final exam test answers of CCNA 2 also here we uploaded practice test answers of ccna1,ccna2,ccna3,ccna4 Cisco exam ccna all module test answers of 2016.
CCNA 2
Question 1 :
In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host***
CCNA 2
Question 2 :
What is an advantage of deploying IPv4 NAT technology for internal hosts in an organization?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** provides flexibility in designing the IPv4 addressing scheme***
CCNA 2
Question 3 :
Inter-VLAN communication is not occurring in a particular building of a school. Which two commands could the network administrator use to verify that inter-VLAN communication was working properly between a router and a Layer 2 switch when the router-on-a-stick design method is implemented? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** From the router, issue the show ip route command.
From the switch, issue the show interfaces trunk command.***
From the switch, issue the show interfaces trunk command.***
CCNA 2
Question 4 :
Fill in the blank. A_________________ network is one that uses the same infrastructure to carry voice, data, and video signals.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** converged ***
CCNA 2
Question 5 :
Several key servers in an organization must be directly accessible from the Internet. What addressing policy should be implemented for these servers?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Assign static internal addresses and public external addresses to each of the servers.***
CCNA 2
Question 6 :
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the partial output from the show ip route command, what two facts can be determined about the RIP routing protocol? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** RIP version 2 is running on this router and its RIP neighbor.***
CCNA 2
Question 7 :
Refer to the exhibit. In the routing table entry, what is the administrative distance?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 120***
CCNA 2
Question 8 :
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200***
CCNA 2
Question 9 :
Refer to the exhibit. What routing solution will allow both PC A and PC B to access the Internet with the minimum amount of router CPU and network bandwidth utilization?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Configure a static default route from R1 to Edge, a default route from Edge to the Internet, and a static route from Edge to R1.***
CCNA 2
Question 10 :
Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** trunk***
CCNA 2
Question 11 :
While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.***
CCNA 2
Question 12 :
Refer to the exhibit. Which would be chosen as the router ID of R2?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** LLA: FE80::2***
CCNA 2
Question 13 :
Refer to the exhibit. Inter-VLAN communication between VLAN 10, VLAN 20, and VLAN 30 is not successful. What is the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The switch interface FastEthernet0/1 is configured as an access interface and should be configured as a trunk interface.***
CCNA 2
Question 14 :
When dynamic NAT without overloading is being used, what happens if seven users attempt to access a public server on the Internet when only six addresses are available in the NAT pool?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The request to the server for the seventh user fails.***
CCNA 2
Question 15 :
What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address***
CCNA 2
Question 16 :
What is a disadvantage when both sides of a communication use PAT?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** End-to-end IPv4 traceability is lost.***
CCNA 2
Question 17 :
Fill in the blank. When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the packet and looks in the ______________table to determine the best path to use to forward the packet.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Routing ***
CCNA 2
Question 18 :
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** switchport mode access
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict***
switchport port-security
switchport port-security maximum 2
switchport port-security mac-address sticky
switchport port-security violation restrict***
CCNA 2
Question 19 :
What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.***
CCNA 2
Question 20 :
What are the two purposes of an OSPF router ID? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to uniquely identify the router within the OSPF domain
to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router***
to facilitate router participation in the election of the designated router***
CCNA 2
Question 21 :
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** There is no end-to-end addressing.***
CCNA 2
Question 22 :
Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.
All subnets in a network are the same size.***
All subnets in a network are the same size.***
CCNA 2
Question 23 :
Refer to the exhibit. In this network design, which connection or connections if any, add the VLAN ID number if host H1 sends information to host H2?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** no link***
CCNA 2
Question 24 :
Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer for the company that is shown wants to use the primary ISP connection for all external connectivity. The backup ISP connection is used only if the primary ISP connection fails. Which set of commands would accomplish this goal?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10***
ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/1/0 10***
CCNA 2
Question 25 :
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Switch(config)# no vlan 100***
CCNA 2
Question 26 :
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.***
CCNA 2
Question 27 :
Which routing protocol uses link-state information to build a map of the topology for computing the best path to each destination network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** OSPF***
CCNA 2
Question 28 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring RT1 for inter-VLAN routing. The switch is configured correctly and is functional. Host1, Host2, and Host3 cannot communicate with each other. Based on the router configuration, what is causing the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** IP addresses on the subinterfaces are incorrectly matched to the VLANs.***
CCNA 2
Question 29 :
Which two keywords can be used in an access control list to replace a wildcard mask or address and wildcard mask pair? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** host
any***
any***
CCNA 2
Question 30 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 route command on R1. What two conclusions can be drawn from the routing table? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The interface Fa0/1 is configured with IPv6 address 2001:DB8:ACAD:A::12.
R1 does not know a route to any remote networks.***
R1 does not know a route to any remote networks.***
CCNA 2
Question 31 :
Which statement accurately describes dynamic NAT?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It provides an automated mapping of inside local to inside global IP addresses.***
CCNA 2
Question 32 :
A small company has a web server in the office that is accessible from the Internet. The IP address 192.168.10.15 is assigned to the web server. The network administrator is configuring the router so that external clients can access the web server over the Internet. Which item is required in the NAT configuration?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the ip nat inside source command to link the inside local and inside global addresses ***
CCNA 2
Question 33 :
What two pieces of information are displayed in the output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** IP addresses
Layer 1 statuses***
Layer 1 statuses***
CCNA 2
Question 34 :
Which two parameters are used by EIGRP as metrics to select the best path to reach a network? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** bandwidth
delay***
delay***
CCNA 2
Question 35 :
Refer to the exhibit. What command would be used to configure a static route on R1 so that traffic from both LANs can reach the 2001:db8:1:4::/64 remote network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ipv6 route 2001:db8:1:4::/64 2001:db8:1:3::2***
CCNA 2
Question 36 :
Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** floating static route***
CCNA 2
Question 37 :
Refer to the exhibit. What does R1 use as the MAC address of the destination when constructing the frame that will go from R1 to Server B?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** If the destination MAC address that corresponds to the IPv4 address is not in the ARP cache, R1 sends an ARP request.***
CCNA 2
Question 38 :
Refer to the exhibit. The IPv6 access list LIMITED_ACCESS is applied on the S0/0/0 interface of R1 in the inbound direction. Which IPv6 packets from the ISP will be dropped by the ACL on R1?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ICMPv6 packets that are destined to PC1***
CCNA 2
Question 39 :
Which three statements describe ACL processing of packets? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** An implicit deny any rejects any packet that does not match any ACE.
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.***
A packet can either be rejected or forwarded as directed by the ACE that is matched.
Each statement is checked only until a match is detected or until the end of the ACE list.***
CCNA 2
Question 40 :
Which three statements are generally considered to be best practices in the placement of ACLs? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Filter unwanted traffic before it travels onto a low-bandwidth link.
Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.***
Place extended ACLs close to the source IP address of the traffic.
Place standard ACLs close to the destination IP address of the traffic.***
CCNA 2
Question 41 :
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator that has the IP address of 10.0.70.23/25 needs to have access to the corporate FTP server (10.0.54.5/28). The FTP server is also a web server that is accessible to all internal employees on networks within the 10.x.x.x address. No other traffic should be allowed to this server. Which extended ACL would be used to filter this traffic, and how would this ACL be applied? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out***
access-list 105 permit tcp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
access-list 105 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 10.0.54.5 eq www
access-list 105 deny ip any host 10.0.54.5
access-list 105 permit ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out***
CCNA 2
Question 42 :
Which switching method provides error-free data transmission?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** store-and-forward***
CCNA 2
Question 43 :
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ICMP message type
destination UDP port number***
destination UDP port number***
CCNA 2
Question 44 :
A host on the 10.10.100.0/24 LAN is not being assigned an IPv4 address by an enterprise DHCP server with the address 10.10.200.10/24. What is the best way for the network engineer to resolve this problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Issue the command ip helper-address 10.10.200.10 on the router interface that is the 10.10.100.0/24 gateway.***
CCNA 2
Question 45 :
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0.***
CCNA 2
Question 46 :
A network designer must provide a rationale to a customer for a design which will move an enterprise from a flat network topology to a hierarchical network topology. Which two features of the hierarchical design make it the better choice? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** easier to provide redundant links to ensure higher availability
simpler deployment for additional switch equipment***
simpler deployment for additional switch equipment***
CCNA 2
Question 47 :
What are two advantages of modular switches over fixed-configuration switches? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** increased scalability
need for fewer power outlets***
need for fewer power outlets***
CCNA 2
Question 48 :
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1 Gi0/1.12
outbound***
outbound***
CCNA 2
Question 49 :
Consider the following routing table entry for R1: D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/2170112] via 209.165.200.226, 00:00:05, Serial0/0/0 What is the significance of the Serial0/0/0?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It is the interface on R1 used to send data that is destined for 10.1.1.0/24.***
CCNA 2
Question 50 :
An administrator created and applied an outbound Telnet extended ACL on a router to prevent router-initiated Telnet sessions. What is a consequence of this configuration?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The ACL will not work as desired because an outbound ACL cannot block router-initiated traffic.***
CCNA 2
Question 51 :
A packet moves from a host on one network to a device on a remote network within the same company. If NAT is not performed on the packet, which two items remain unchanged during the transfer of the packet from source to destination? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** destination IP address
source IP address***
source IP address***
CCNA 2
Question 52 :
Consider the following access list that allows IP phone configuration file transfers from a particular host to a TFTP server: R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000 R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any R1(config)# interface gi0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out Which method would allow the network administrator to modify the ACL and include FTP transfers from any source IP address?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# no access-list 105
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out***
R1(config-if)# no ip access-group 105 out
R1(config)# no access-list 105
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit udp host 10.0.70.23 host 10.0.54.5 range 1024 5000
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 20
R1(config)# access-list 105 permit tcp any host 10.0.54.5 eq 21
R1(config)# access-list 105 deny ip any any
R1(config)# interface gi0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 105 out***
CCNA 2
Question 53 :
Which DHCPv4 message will a client send to accept an IPv4 address that is offered by a DHCP server?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** broadcast DHCPREQUEST***
CCNA 2
Question 54 :
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It determines the best path to send packets.
It connects multiple IP networks.***
It connects multiple IP networks.***
CCNA 2
Question 55 :
Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** source MAC address***
CCNA 2
Question 56 :
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.***
CCNA 2
Question 57 :
Which OPSF packet contains the different types of link-state advertisements?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** LSU***
CCNA 2
Question 58 :
Refer to the exhibit. Port Fa0/2 has already been configured appropriately. The IP phone and PC work properly. Which switch configuration would be most appropriate for port Fa0/2 if the network administrator has the following goals?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky***
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 2
SWA(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky***
CCNA 2
Question 59 :
What does a Cisco router use automatically to create link-local addresses on serial interfaces when OSPFv3 is implemented?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** an Ethernet interface MAC address available on the router, the FE80::/10 prefix, and the EUI-64 process***
CCNA 2
Question 60 :
Which two statements correctly describe the concepts of administrative distance and metric? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Administrative distance refers to the trustworthiness of a particular route.
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.***
Routes with the smallest metric to a destination indicate the best path.***
CCNA 2
Question 61 :
What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The static route is removed from the routing table.***
CCNA 2
Question 62 :
A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** OSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.***
CCNA 2
Question 63 :
How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces. ***
CCNA 2
Question 64 :
Which two previously independent technologies should a network administrator attempt to combine after choosing to upgrade to a converged network infrastructure? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** user data traffic
analog and VoIP phone traffic***
analog and VoIP phone traffic***
CCNA 2
Question 65 :
Typically, which network device would be used to perform NAT for a corporate environment?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** router***
CCNA 2
Question 66 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What IPv6 static route can be configured on router R1 to make a fully converged network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ipv6 route 2001:db8:10:12::/64 S0/0/1***
CCNA 2
Question 67 :
Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. When configuring RIPng, the ______________command instructs the router to propagate a static default route.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ----default-information originate----- ***
CCNA 2
Question 68 :
Fill in the blank. Using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing, how many subinterfaces have to be configured to support 10 VLANs?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 10***
CCNA 2
Question 69 :
Refer to the exhibit. What should be done to allow PC-A to receive an IPv6 address from the DHCPv6 server?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Add the ipv6 dhcp relay command to interface Fa0/0.***
CCNA 2
Question 70 :
An administrator wants to use a network security auditing tool on a switch to verify which ports are not protected against a MAC flooding attack. For the audit to be successful, what important factor must the administrator consider?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the aging-out period of the MAC address table***
CCNA 2
Question 71 :
Which command displays the encapsulation type, the voice VLAN ID, and the access mode VLAN for the Fa0/1 interface?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show interfaces Fa0/1 switchport***
CCNA 2
Question 72 :
Refer to the exhibit. PC A sends a request to Server B. What IPv4 address is used in the destination field in the packet as the packet leaves PC A?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 192.168.12.16***
CCNA 2
Question 73 :
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. To quickly verify OSPFv3 configuration information including the OSPF process ID, the router ID, and the interfaces enabled for OSPFv3, you need to issue the command
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show ipv6 protocols ***
CCNA 2
Question 74 :
Refer to the exhibit. Which interface will be the exit interface to forward a data packet with the destination IP address 172.16.0.66?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Serial0/0/1
***
***
CCNA 2
Question 75 :
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device***
CCNA 2
Question 76 :
What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.***
Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.***
CCNA 2
Question 77 :
What is the destination address in the header of a broadcast frame?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** FF-FF-FF-FF-FF-FF***
CCNA 2
Question 78 :
Which configuration would be appropriate for a small business that has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30 assigned to the external interface on the router that connects to the Internet?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255
ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload***
ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial 0/0/0 overload***
CCNA 2
Question 79 :
Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding***
CCNA 2
Question 80 :
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** store-and-forward switching***
CCNA 2
Question 81 :
A network administrator configures the border router with the command R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp. What is required to be configured in order for this particular command to be functional?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a NAT pool named corp that defines the starting and ending public IP addresses***
CCNA 2
Question 82 :
Which two statements are true regarding switch port security? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Dynamically learned secure MAC addresses are lost when the switch reboots.
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.***
If fewer than the maximum number of MAC addresses for a port are configured statically, dynamically learned addresses are added to CAM until the maximum number is reached.***
CCNA 2
Question 83 :
What is the purpose of port forwarding?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Port forwarding allows an external user to reach a service on a private IPv4 address that is located inside a LAN.***
CCNA 2
Question 84 :
A company uses the SLAAC method to configure IPv6 addresses for the employee workstations. Which address will a client use as its default gateway?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the link-local address of the router interface that is attached to the network***
CCNA 2
Question 85 :
What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers
mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces***
mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces***
CCNA 2
Question 86 :
Fill in the blank. The election of a DR and a BDR takes place on networks, such as Ethernet networks.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** multiaccess***
CCNA 2
Question 87 :
The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2***
CCNA 2
Question 88 :
What are two reasons a network administrator would segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to isolate traffic between segments
to enhance user bandwidth***
to enhance user bandwidth***
CCNA 2
Question 89 :
What is a function of OSPF hello packets?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them***
CCNA 2
Question 90 :
Which two characteristics match extended range VLANs? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** VLAN IDs exist between 1006 to 4094.
They are saved in the running-config file by default.***
They are saved in the running-config file by default.***
CCNA 2
Question 91 :
What VLANs are allowed across a trunk when the range of allowed VLANs is set to the default value?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** All VLANs will be allowed across the trunk.***
CCNA 2
Question 92 :
A destination route in the routing table is indicated with a code D. Which kind of route entry is this?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a route dynamically learned through the EIGRP routing protocol***
CCNA 2
Question 93 :
What would be the best summary route for the following networks? 10.50.168.0/23 10.50.170.0/23 10.50.172.0/23 10.50.174.0/24
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 10.50.168.0/21***
CCNA 2
Question 94 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured R1 as shown. When the administrator checks the status of the serial interface, the interface is shown as being administratively down. What additional command must be entered on the serial interface of R1 to bring the interface up?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** no shutdown***
CCNA 2
Question 95 :
Which IPv6 ACL command entry will permit traffic from any host to an SMTP server on network 2001:DB8:10:10::/64?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:10:10::100 eq 25***
CCNA 2
Question 96 :
How will a router handle static routing differently if Cisco Express Forwarding is disabled?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Ethernet multiaccess interfaces will require fully specified static routes to avoid routing inconsistencies.***
CCNA 2
Question 97 :
What are two of the required steps to configure PAT? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Define a pool of global addresses to be used for overload translation.
Identify the inside interface.***
Identify the inside interface.***
CCNA 2
Question 98 :
In which configuration would an outbound ACL placement be preferred over an inbound ACL placement?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** when the ACL is applied to an outbound interface to filter packets coming from multiple inbound interfaces before the packets exit the interface***
CCNA 2
Question 99 :
What single access list statement matches all of the following networks? 192.168.16.0 192.168.17.0 192.168.18.0 192.168.19.0
The Answer of this quiz is
*** access-list 10 permit 192.168.16.0 0.0.3.255***
CCNA 2
Question 100 :
A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements: IP phones – 50 PCs – 70 IP cameras – 10 wireless access points – 10 network printers – 10 network scanners – 2 Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 172.16.0.0/24***
CCNA 2
Question 101 :
Using NAT terminology, what is the address of the source host on a private network as seen from inside the network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** inside local***
CCNA 2
Question 102 :
Which two characteristics are shared by both standard and extended ACLs? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Both include an implicit deny as a final entry.
Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.***
Both can be created by using either a descriptive name or number.***
CCNA 2
Question 103 :
Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to be used as a backup route***
CCNA 2
Question 104 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing stateful DHCPv6 operation for the company. However, the clients are not using the prefix and prefix-length information that is configured in the DHCP pool. The administrator issues a show ipv6 interface command. What could be the cause of the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The router is configured for stateless DHCPv6 operation.***
CCNA 2
Question 105 :
An administrator issues the commands: Router(config)# interface g0/1 Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp What is the administrator trying to achieve?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server***
CCNA 2
Question 106 :
What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a default static route
a static route to a specific network***
a static route to a specific network***
CCNA 2
Question 107 :
A college student is studying for the Cisco CCENT certification and is visualizing extended access lists. Which three keywords could immediately follow the keywords permit or deny as part of an extended access list? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** tcp
udp
icmp***
udp
icmp***
CCNA 2
Question 108 :
Which command will verify that a router that is running OSPFv3 has formed an adjacency with other routers in its OSPF area?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show ipv6 ospf neighbor***
CCNA 2
Question 109 :
Fill in the blank.The default administrative distance for a static route is__________________.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 1 ***
CCNA 2
Question 110 :
Refer to the exhibit. What has to be done in order to complete the static NAT configuration on R1?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Interface S0/0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside.***
CCNA 2
Question 111 :
Refer to the exhibit. The NAT configuration applied to the router is as follows: ERtr(config)# access-list 1 permit 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 ERtr(config)# ip nat pool corp 209.165.201.6 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 ERtr(config)# ip nat inside source list 1 pool corp overload ERtr(config)# ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.55 209.165.201.4 ERtr(config)# interface gigabitethernet 0/0 ERtr(config-if)# ip nat inside ERtr(config-if)# interface serial 0/0/0 ERtr(config-if)# ip nat outside Based on the configuration and the output shown, what can be determined about the NAT status within the organization?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Not enough information is given to determine if both static and dynamic NAT are working.***
CCNA 2
Question 112 :
Which type of NAT maps a single inside local address to a single inside global address?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** static***
CCNA 2
Question 113 :
What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** shortest-path first calculations***
CCNA 2
Question 114 :
Which three implicit access control entries are automatically added to the end of an IPv6 ACL? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** deny ipv6 any any
permit icmp any any nd-ns
permit icmp any any nd-na***
permit icmp any any nd-ns
permit icmp any any nd-na***
CCNA 2
Question 115 :
Which two requirements are used to determine if a route can be considered as an ultimate route in a router’s routing table? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** contain an exit interface
contain a next-hop IP address***
contain a next-hop IP address***
CCNA 2
Question 116 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues in an Ethernet network with the command show interfaces fastEthernet 0/0. What conclusion can be drawn based on the partial output in the exhibit?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A malfunctioning NIC can cause frames to be transmitted that are longer than the allowed maximum length. ***
CCNA 2
Question 117 :
A network administrator is testing IPv6 connectivity to a web server. The network administrator does not want any other host to connect to the web server except for the one test computer. Which type of IPv6 ACL could be used for this situation?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** only a named ACL ***
CCNA 2
Question 118 :
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. A network engineer is troubleshooting the configuration of new VLANs on a network. Which command is used to display the list of VLANs that exists on the switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show vlan***
CCNA 2
Question 119 :
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the highest IPv4 address on an active interface***
CCNA 2
Question 120 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PCs on different VLANs cannot communicate. Based on the output, what are two configuration errors on switch interface Gi1/1? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Gi1/1 is in the default VLAN.
Gi1/1 is configured as trunk mode.***
Gi1/1 is configured as trunk mode.***
CCNA 2
Question 121 :
What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120***
CCNA 2
Question 122 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Why is the ACL not working?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The ACL is applied to the wrong interface.***
CCNA 2
Question 123 :
Refer to the exhibit. What will be the effect of entering the command that is shown in the exhibit on R2 as part of the dynamic NAT configuration?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It will bind NAT-POOL1 with ACL 1.***
CCNA 2
Question 124 :
Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** native***
CCNA 2
Question 125 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Address translation is working.
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
Two types of NAT are enabled.***
A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
Two types of NAT are enabled.***
CCNA 2
Question 126 :
Which interface is the default location that would contain the IP address used to manage a 24-port Ethernet switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** VLAN 1***
CCNA 2
Question 127 :
What two criteria are used by a Cisco LAN switch to decide how to forward Ethernet frames? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ingress port
destination MAC address***
destination MAC address***
CCNA 2
Question 128 :
What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** default route***
CCNA 2
Question 129 :
Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a collapsed core network design***
CCNA 2
Question 130 :
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.***
CCNA 2
Question 131 :
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** IPsec***
CCNA 2
Question 132 :
Which three statements describe the similarities between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** They both are link-state protocols.
They both share the concept of multiple areas.
They both use the same DR/BDR election process.***
They both share the concept of multiple areas.
They both use the same DR/BDR election process.***
CCNA 2
Question 133 :
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of adding the established argument to the end of the ACE?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Any TCP traffic is allowed to reach the 192.168.254.0 255.255.254.0 network if it is in response to an originated request. ***
CCNA 2
Question 134 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring inter-VLAN routing on a network. For now, only one VLAN is being used, but more will be added soon. What is the missing parameter that is shown as the highlighted question mark in the graphic?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It identifies the VLAN number.***
CCNA 2
Question 135 :
Refer to the exhibit. R1 is configured for NAT as displayed. What is wrong with the configuration?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** NAT-POOL2 is not bound to ACL 1.***
CCNA 2
Question 136 :
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16? CCNA2 Final Exam v5.03 004
The Answer of this quiz is
*** level 1 parent route***
CCNA 2
Question 137 :
What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** OSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.***
CCNA 2
Question 138 :
While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to create a routed port for a single network***
CCNA 2
Question 139 :
An administrator wants to configure hosts to automatically assign IPv6 addresses to themselves by the use of Router Advertisement messages, but also to obtain the DNS server address from a DHCPv6 server. Which address assignment method should be configured?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** stateless DHCPv6***
CCNA 2
Question 140 :
What is used to create the OSPF neighbor table?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** adjacency database***
CCNA 2
Question 141 :
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A cable has not been attached to the port.***
CCNA 2
Question 142 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation.***
CCNA 2
Question 143 :
Refer to the exhibit. What address will be used as the router ID for the OSPFv3 process?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 10.1.1.1***
CCNA 2
Question 144 :
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
The path a static route uses to send data is known.***
Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
The path a static route uses to send data is known.***
CCNA 2
Question 145 :
Which OSPF component is identical in all routers in an OSPF area after convergence?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** link-state database***
CCNA 2
Question 146 :
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.***
CCNA 2
Question 147 :
What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.***
CCNA 2
Question 148 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator needs to configure router-on-a-stick for the networks that are shown. How many subinterfaces will have to be created on the router if each VLAN that is shown is to be routed and each VLAN has its own subinterface?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 4***
CCNA 2
Question 149 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has issued the exhibited commands in an attempt to activate RIPng on interface gig0/0. What is causing the console message that is shown after RIP is enabled?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** IPv6 unicast routing has not been enabled on this router.***
CCNA 2
Question 150 :
What two tasks do dynamic routing protocols perform? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** update and maintain routing tables
network discovery***
network discovery***
CCNA 2
Question 151 :
Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** FE80::1
FF02::5
FF02::6***
FF02::5
FF02::6***
CCNA 2
Question 152 :
What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased***
CCNA 2
Question 153 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is implementing the stateless DHCPv6 operation for the company. Clients are configuring IPv6 addresses as expected. However, the clients are not getting the DNS server address and the domain name information configured in the DHCP pool. What could be the cause of the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The router is configured for SLAAC operation.***
CCNA 2
Question 154 :
Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** shutdown***
CCNA 2
Question 155 :
Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** port security
DHCP snooping***
DHCP snooping***
CCNA 2
Question 156 :
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 0.0.1.255***
CCNA 2
Question 157 :
Which two statements are true about using full-duplex Fast Ethernet? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Full-duplex Fast Ethernet offers 100 percent efficiency in both directions.
Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.***
Performance is improved with bidirectional data flow.***
CCNA 2
Question 158 :
Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information? Destination address: 255.255.255.255 Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0 Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0 Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Destination address: 255.255.255.255***
CCNA 2
Question 159 :
Which two items are used by a host device when performing an ANDing operation to determine if a destination address is on the same local network? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** destination IP address
subnet mask***
subnet mask***
CCNA 2
Question 160 :
What is the only type of ACL available for IPv6?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** named extended***
CCNA 2
Question 161 :
Which two requirements are necessary before a router configured with a link-state routing protocol can build and send its link-state packets? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The router has determined the costs associated with its active links.
The router has established its adjacencies.***
The router has established its adjacencies.***
CCNA 2
Question 162 :
Which two Layer 2 security best practices would help prevent VLAN hopping attacks? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Change the native VLAN number to one that is distinct from all user VLANs and is not VLAN 1.
Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.***
Disable DTP autonegotiation on end-user ports.***
CCNA 2
Question 163 :
Refer to the exhibit. After attempting to enter the configuration that is shown in router RTA, an administrator receives an error and users on VLAN 20 report that they are unable to reach users on VLAN 30. What is causing the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** RTA is using the same subnet for VLAN 20 and VLAN 30.
***
***
CCNA 2
Question 164 :
What is the effect of the access control list wildcard mask 0.0.0.15? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The last four bits of a supplied IP address will be ignored.
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.***
The first 28 bits of a supplied IP address will be matched.***
CCNA 2
Question 165 :
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** They are not associated with a particular VLAN.
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.***
In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.***
CCNA 2
Question 166 :
Which wildcard mask would be used to advertise the 192.168.5.96/27 network as part of an OSPF configuration?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 0.0.0.31***
CCNA 2
Question 167 :
Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799
Source IP: 10.1.1.10***
Source IP: 10.1.1.10***
CCNA 2
Question 168 :
Refer to the exhibit. Consider that the main power has just been restored. PC3 issues a broadcast IPv4 DHCP request. To which port will SW1 forward this request?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to Fa0/1, Fa0/2, and Fa0/3 only***
CCNA 2
Question 169 :
Refer to the exhibit. The student on the H1 computer continues to launch an extended ping with expanded packets at the student on the H2 computer. The school network administrator wants to stop this behavior, but still allow both students access to web-based computer assignments. What would be the best plan for the network administrator?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Apply an inbound extended ACL on R1 Gi0/0.***
CCNA 2
Question 170 :
An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in***
CCNA 2
Question 171 :
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.***
CCNA 2
Question 172 :
Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ping
show ip route
show ip interface brief***
show ip route
show ip interface brief***
CCNA 2
Question 173 :
In order for packets to be sent to a remote destination, what three pieces of information must be configured on a host? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** IP address
subnet mask
default gateway***
subnet mask
default gateway***
CCNA 2
Question 174 :
What is a characteristic of unique local addresses?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** They allow sites to be combined without creating any address conflicts.***
CCNA 2
Question 175 :
When routing a large number of VLANs, what are two disadvantages of using the router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing method rather than the multilayer switch inter-VLAN routing method? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A dedicated router is required.
Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed.***
Multiple subinterfaces may impact the traffic flow speed.***
CCNA 2
Question 176 :
Which two basic functions are performed by network security tools? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** simulating attacks against the production network to determine any existing vulnerabilities
revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic***
revealing the type of information an attacker is able to gather from monitoring network traffic***
CCNA 2
Question 177 :
A Cisco Catalyst switch has been added to support the use of multiple VLANs as part of an enterprise network. The network technician finds it necessary to clear all VLAN information from the switch in order to incorporate a new network design. What should the technician do to accomplish this task?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Delete the startup configuration and the vlan.dat file in the flash memory of the switch and reboot the switch.***
CCNA 2
Question 178 :
A router is configured to participate in multiple routing protocol: RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF. The router must send a packet to network 192.168.14.0. Which route will be used to forward the traffic?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a 192.168.14.0 /26 route that is learned via RIP***
CCNA 2
Question 179 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. What problem is causing PC-A to be unable to communicate with the Internet?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The NAT interfaces are not correctly assigned. ***
CCNA 2
Question 180 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which event will take place if there is a port security violation on switch S1 interface Fa0/1?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Packets with unknown source addresses will be dropped.***
CCNA 2
Question 181 :
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.***
CCNA 2
Question 182 :
Refer to the exhibit. R1 receives a packet destined for the IP address 192.168.2.10. Out which interface will R1 forward the packet?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Serial0/0/1***
CCNA 2
Question 183 :
What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** security
cost reduction
improved IT staff efficiency***
cost reduction
improved IT staff efficiency***
CCNA 2
Question 184 :
What is a limitation when utilizing both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs on a router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Both IPv4 and IPv6 ACLs can be configured on a single device, but cannot share the same name.***
CCNA 2
Question 185 :
Fill in the blank. The OSPF Type 1 packet is the_____________________packet.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Hello ***
CCNA 2
Question 186 :
What is meant by the term “best match” when applied to the routing table lookup process?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** longest match ***
CCNA 2
Question 187 :
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0***
CCNA 2
Question 188 :
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a DHCPREQUEST unicast message***
CCNA 2
Question 189 :
What is a function of the switch boot loader?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found***
CCNA 2
Question 190 :
Refer to the exhibit. Fill in the blank. How many collision domains are shown in the topology?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 2***
CCNA 2
Question 191 :
An OSPF enabled router is processing learned routes to select best paths to reach a destination network. What is the OSPF algorithm evaluating as the metric?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The cumulative bandwidth that is used along the routing path.***
CCNA 2
Question 192 :
Refer to the exhibit. OSPF is used in the network. Which path will be chosen by OSPF to send data packets from Net A to Net B?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1, R3, R5, R7***
CCNA 2
Question 193 :
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip address dhcp***
CCNA 2
Question 194 :
Refer to the exhibit. A frame is traveling between PC-A and PC-B through the switch. Which statement is true concerning VLAN tagging of the frame?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** No VLAN tag is added to the frame.***
CCNA 2
Question 195 :
Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands. ***
CCNA 2
Question 196 :
What packets would match the access control list statement that is shown below? access-list 110 permit tcp 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 22
The Answer of this quiz is
*** SSH traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network to any destination network***
CCNA 2
Question 197 :
What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for management purposes?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username and password.***
CCNA 2
Question 198 :
Which statement describes the microsegmentation feature of a LAN switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Each port forms a collision domain.***
CCNA 2
Question 199 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. How many IP addresses has the DHCP server leased and what is the number of DHCP pools configured? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** three leases
one pool***
one pool***
CCNA 2
Question 200 :
What is the primary purpose of NAT?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** conserve IPv4 addresses***
CCNA 2
Question 201 :
A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.***
CCNA 2
Question 202 :
Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.***
CCNA 2
Question 203 :
How does an IPv6 client ensure that it has a unique address after it configures its IPv6 address using the SLAAC allocation method?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It sends an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message with the IPv6 address as the target IPv6 address.***
CCNA 2
Question 204 :
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.***
CCNA 2
Question 205 :
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.***
CCNA 2
Question 206 :
Under which two occasions should an administrator disable DTP while managing a local area network? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** when connecting a Cisco switch to a non-Cisco switch
on links that should not be trunking***
on links that should not be trunking***
CCNA 2
Question 207 :
If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could be created and applied to it?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 8***
CCNA 2
Question 208 :
Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.***
The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.***
CCNA 2
Question 209 :
When does a switch use frame filtering?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The destination MAC address is for a host on the same network segment as the source of the traffic.***
CCNA 2
Question 210 :
What command will enable a router to begin sending messages that allow it to configure a link-local address without using an IPv6 DHCP server?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the ipv6 unicast-routing command***
CCNA 2
Question 211 :
What is a disadvantage of using dynamic routing protocols?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** They send messages about network status insecurely across networks by default.***
CCNA 2
Question 212 :
Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2***
CCNA 2
Question 213 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is investigating a lag in network performance and issues the show interfaces fastethernet 0/0 command. Based on the output that is displayed, what two items should the administrator check next? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** cable lengths
duplex settings***
duplex settings***
CCNA 2
Question 214 :
As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** DHCPREQUEST***
CCNA 2
Question 215 :
Which command will provide information specific to OSPFv3 routes in the routing table?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show ipv6 route ospf***
CCNA 2
Question 216 :
Refer to the exhibit. Interface Fa0/1 is connected to a PC. Fa0/2 is a trunk link to another switch. All other ports are unused. Which security best practice did the administrator forget to configure?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** All user ports are associated with VLANs distinct from VLAN 1 and distinct from the ‘black-hole’ VLAN.***
CCNA 2
Question 217 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then complete the task. What message is displayed on www.ciscoville.com?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Completion!***
CCNA 2
Question 218 :
A network administrator needs to configure a standard ACL so that only the workstation of the administrator with the IP address 192.168.15.23 can access the virtual terminal of the main router. Which two configuration commands can achieve the task? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit host 192.168.15.23
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0***
Router1(config)# access-list 10 permit 192.168.15.23 0.0.0.0***
CCNA 2
Question 219 :
Which two pieces of information are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** source address and wildcard mask
access list number between 1 and 99***
access list number between 1 and 99***
CCNA 2
Question 220 :
A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table***
CCNA 2
Question 221 :
A network administrator enters the command ipv6 router ospf 64in global configuration mode. What is the result of this command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The OSPFv3 process will be assigned an ID of 64.***
CCNA 2
Question 222 :
Single area OSPFv3 has been enabled on a router via the ipv6 router ospf 20 command. Which command will enable this OSPFv3 process on an interface of that router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ipv6 ospf 20 area 0***
CCNA 2
Question 223 :
Which statement describes a difference between the operation of inbound and outbound ACLs?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Inbound ACLs are processed before the packets are routed while outbound ACLs are processed after the routing is completed.***
CCNA 2
Question 224 :
Refer to the exhibit. Which command can the administrator issue to change the VLAN10 status to up?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Switch1(config)# vlan 10
Switch1(config-vlan)# exit***
Switch1(config-vlan)# exit***
CCNA 2
Question 225 :
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** permit icmp any any nd-na***
CCNA 2
Question 226 :
What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs***
CCNA 2
Question 227 :
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk***
Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk***
CCNA 2
Question 228 :
Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** FE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538***
CCNA 2
Question 229 :
What is a basic function of the Cisco Borderless Architecture distribution layer?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** aggregating Layer 3 routing boundaries***
CCNA 2
Question 230 :
What command would be used to determine if a routing protocol-initiated relationship had been made with an adjacent router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show ip ospf neighbor***
CCNA 2
Question 231 :
What two pieces of information are needed in a fully specified static route to eliminate recursive lookups? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the interface ID exit interface
the IP address of the next-hop neighbor***
the IP address of the next-hop neighbor***
CCNA 2
Question 232 :
What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Vability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable?***
CCNA 2
Question 233 :
How are IP addressing designs affected by VLAN implementations?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Each VLAN must have a different network number.***
CCNA 2
Question 234 :
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** (config)# ip routing***
CCNA 2
Question 235 :
Fill in the blank. OSPF uses _______ as a metric.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** cost***
CCNA 2
Question 236 :
Which command should the network administrator implement to prevent the transfer of DTP frames between a Cisco switch and a non-Cisco switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** S1(config-if)# switchport nonegotiate***
CCNA 2
Question 237 :
Which OSPFv3 function works differently from OSPFv2?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** authentication***
CCNA 2
Question 238 :
Refer to the exhibit. How is a frame sent from PCA forwarded to PCC if the MAC address table on switch SW1 is empty?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** SW1 floods the frame on all ports on SW1, excluding the port through which the frame entered the switch***
CCNA 2
Question 239 :
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is trying to configure the switch but receives the error message that is displayed in the exhibit. What is the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The NAT pool has been exhausted.***
CCNA 2
Question 240 :
When does a link-state router send LSPs to its neighbors?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** immediately after receiving an LSP from neighbors with updates***
CCNA 2
Question 241 :
What does an OSPF area contain?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** routers that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs***
CCNA 2
Question 242 :
Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 3***
CCNA 2
Question 243 :
What is used in the EUI-64 process to create an IPv6 interface ID on an IPv6 enabled interface?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the MAC address of the IPv6 enabled interface***
CCNA 2
Question 244 :
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants to configure Switch1 to allow SSH connections and prohibit Telnet connections. How should the network administrator change the displayed configuration to satisfy the requirement?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Modify the transport input command.***
CCNA 2
Question 245 :
What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.***
CCNA 2
Question 246 :
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365***
ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365***
CCNA 2
Question 247 :
A network administrator is configuring a static NAT on the border router for a web server located in the DMZ network. The web server is configured to listen on TCP port 8080. The web server is paired with the internal IP address of 192.168.5.25 and the external IP address of 209.165.200.230. For easy access by hosts on the Internet, external users do not need to specify the port when visiting the web server. Which command will configure the static NAT?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.5.25 8080 209.165.200.230 80***
CCNA 2
Question 248 :
What is the purpose of the passive-interface command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** allows a router to receive routing updates on an interface but not send updates via that interface***
CCNA 2
Question 249 :
What is the first criterion used by OPSF routers to elect a DR?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** highest priority***
CCNA 2
Question 250 :
What is a characteristic of legacy inter-VLAN routing?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The router requires one Ethernet link for each VLAN.***
CCNA 2
Question 251 :
In which type of attack does a malicious node request all available IP addresses in the address pool of a DHCP server in order to prevent legitimate hosts from obtaining network access?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** DHCP starvation***
CCNA 2
Question 252 :
What is a collapsed core in a network design?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a combination of the functionality of the distribution and core layers***
CCNA 2
Question 253 :
What two functions describe uses of an access control list? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ACLs provide a basic level of security for network access.
ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.***
ACLs can control which areas a host can access on a network.***
CCNA 2
Question 254 :
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. NAT overload is also known as
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Port Address Translation***
CCNA 2
Question 255 :
Which feature is unique to IPv6 ACLs when compared to those of IPv4 ACLs?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** an implicit permit of neighbor discovery packets***
CCNA 2
Question 256 :
An administrator is attempting to configure a static route on a Cisco 2960 series switch. After the administrator types the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.1.1, an error message appears stating that the command is not recognized. What must the administrator do so that this command is accepted?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Enter the command sdm prefer lanbase-routing and reload.***
CCNA 2
Question 257 :
A network administrator configures the port security feature on a switch. The security policy specifies that each access port should allow up to two MAC addresses. When the maximum number of MAC addresses is reached, a frame with the unknown source MAC address is dropped and a notification is sent to the syslog server. Which security violation mode should be configured for each access port?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** restrict ***
CCNA 2
Question 258 :
A local law firm is redesigning the company network so that all 20 employees can be connected to a LAN and to the Internet. The law firm would prefer a low cost and easy solution for the project. What type of switch should be selected?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** fixed configuration***
CCNA 2
Question 259 :
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The link interface subnet masks must match.***
The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
The link interface subnet masks must match.***
CCNA 2
Question 260 :
Which two modes does Cisco recommend when configuring a particular switch port? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** access
trunk***
trunk***
CCNA 2
Question 261 :
Which set of commands will configure a router as a DHCP server that will assign IPv4 addresses to the 192.168.100.0/23 LAN while reserving the first 10 and the last addresses for static assignment?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.100.1 192.168.100.10
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1***
ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.101.254
ip dhcp pool LAN-POOL-100
network 192.168.100.0 255.255.254.0
default-router 192.168.100.1***
CCNA 2
Question 262 :
Which dynamic routing protocol was developed as an exterior gateway protocol to interconnect different Internet providers?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** BGP***
CCNA 2
Question 263 :
A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol***
CCNA 2
Question 264 :
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what type of NAT has been implemented?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** PAT using an external interface***
CCNA 2
Question 265 :
Refer to the exhibit. Router RA receives a packet with a source address of 192.168.1.35 and a destination address of 192.168.1.85. What will the router do with this packet? CCNA2 Chapter 5 v5.03 004
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The router will forward the packet out interface FastEthernet 0/1.2.***
CCNA 2
Question 266 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Based on the partial output that is displayed by the use of the show vlan command, which conclusion can be drawn for the Gi1/1 interface?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It is configured as trunk mode.***
CCNA 2
Question 267 :
What method is used to apply an IPv6 ACL to a router interface?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the use of the ipv6 traffic-filter command***
CCNA 2
Question 268 :
Which three statements accurately describe VLAN types? (Choose three).
The Answer of this quiz is
*** After the initial boot of an unconfigured switch, all ports are members of the default VLAN.
A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.
An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.***
A management VLAN is any VLAN that is configured to access management features of the switch.
An 802.1Q trunk port, with a native VLAN assigned, supports both tagged and untagged traffic.***
CCNA 2
Question 269 :
What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It is a logical interface internal to the router.***
CCNA 2
Question 270 :
Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** client hardware address***
CCNA 2
Question 271 :
Which statement describes a disadvantage of using router subinterfaces for inter-VLAN routing?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Routed traffic must contend for bandwidth on a single router interface.***
CCNA 2
Question 272 :
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1***
CCNA 2
Question 273 :
Refer to the exhibit. What will happen to the access list 10 ACEs if the router is rebooted before any other commands are implemented?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The ACEs of access list 10 will be renumbered.***
CCNA 2
Question 274 :
Refer to the exhibit. What is the problem with this configuration, based on the output of the router?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The encapsulation has not been configured on the subinterface.***
CCNA 2
Question 275 :
The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** access-class 5 in
access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31***
access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31***
CCNA 2
Question 276 :
Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.
This is an ISP requirement.***
This is an ISP requirement.***
CCNA 2
Question 277 :
Fill in the blank.Static routes are configured by the use of the_________________global configuration command.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip route ***
CCNA 2
Question 278 :
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined from the output that is shown?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Interface FastEthernet 0/1 is configured with the switchport protected command.***
CCNA 2
Question 279 :
A network engineer has configured a router with the command ip nat inside source list 4 pool corp overload. Why did the engineer use the overload option?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The company has more private IP addresses than available public IP addresses.***
CCNA 2
Question 280 :
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output that is shown, what kind of IPv6 addressing is being configured?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** stateless DHCPv6***
CCNA 2
Question 281 :
Refer to the exhibit. Which default static route command would allow R1 to potentially reach all unknown networks on the Internet?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 G0/1 fe80::2***
CCNA 2
Question 282 :
An administrator attempts to change the router ID on a router that is running OSPFv3 by changing the IPv4 address on the router loopback interface. Once the IPv4 address is changed, the administrator notes that the router ID did not change. What two actions can the administrator take so that the router will use the new IPv4 address as the router ID? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Reboot the router.
Clear the IPv6 OSPF process.***
Clear the IPv6 OSPF process.***
CCNA 2
Question 283 :
Refer to the exhibit. If the IP addresses of the default gateway router and the DNS server are correct, what is the configuration problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The IP address of the default gateway router is not contained in the excluded address list.***
CCNA 2
Question 284 :
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains***
CCNA 2
Question 285 :
Refer to the exhibit. A router has an existing ACL that permits all traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network. The administrator attempts to add a new ACE to the ACL that denies packets from host 172.16.0.1 and receives the error message that is shown in the exhibit. What action can the administrator take to block packets from host 172.16.0.1 while still permitting all other traffic from the 172.16.0.0 network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Manually add the new deny ACE with a sequence number of 5.***
CCNA 2
Question 286 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. Which command is missing on the Layer 3 switch to restore the full connectivity between PC1 and the web server? (Note that typing no shutdown will not fix this problem.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0 ***
CCNA 2
Question 287 :
A company implements the stateless DHCPv6 method for configuring IPv6 addresses on employee workstations. After a workstation receives messages from multiple DHCPv6 servers to indicate their availability for DHCPv6 service, which message does it send to a server for configuration information?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** DHCPv6 INFORMATION-REQUEST***
CCNA 2
Question 288 :
How many classful networks are summarized by the static summary route ip route 192.168.32.0 255.255.248.0 S0/0/0?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 8***
CCNA 2
Question 289 :
Fill in the blank. In IPv6, all routes are level___________________ultimate routes.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 1***
CCNA 2
Question 290 :
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** access list number between 100 and 199
destination address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask***
destination address and wildcard mask
source address and wildcard mask***
CCNA 2
Question 291 :
What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** utilize multiple different subnet masks in the same IP address space***
CCNA 2
Question 292 :
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** recursive static route***
CCNA 2
Question 293 :
A client is using SLAAC to obtain an IPv6 address for its interface. After an address has been generated and applied to the interface, what must the client do before it can begin to use this IPv6 address?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It must send an ICMPv6 Neighbor Solicitation message to ensure that the address is not already in use on the network.***
CCNA 2
Question 294 :
Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1***
CCNA 2
Question 295 :
In a basic VLAN hopping attack, which switch feature do attackers take advantage of?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the default automatic trunking configuration***
CCNA 2
Question 296 :
Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
dynamic desirable – trunk***
dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
dynamic desirable – trunk***
CCNA 2
Question 297 :
Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** switch***
CCNA 2
Question 298 :
Consider the following command: ip route 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.2 5 How would an administrator test this configuration?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Manually shut down the router interface used as a primary route.***
CCNA 2
Question 299 :
Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations. The_______________command configures a switch port to operate in the full-duplex mode.
The Answer of this quiz is
*** duplex full ***
CCNA 2
Question 300 :
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.***
CCNA 2
Question 301 :
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.***
CCNA 2
Question 302 :
What is a definition of a two-tier LAN network design?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** distribution and core layers collapsed into one tier, and the access layer on a separate tier***
CCNA 2
Question 303 :
After a network topology change occurs, which distance vector routing protocol can send an update message directly to a single neighboring router without unnecessarily notifying other routers?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** EIGRP***
CCNA 2
Question 304 :
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 8***
CCNA 2
Question 305 :
Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which PCs will receive the broadcast sent by PC-C?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** PC-D, PC-E***
CCNA 2
Question 306 :
What are two advantages of static routing over dynamic routing? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Static routing is more secure because it does not advertise over the network.
Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.***
Static routing uses fewer router resources than dynamic routing.***
CCNA 2
Question 307 :
What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.***
CCNA 2
Question 308 :
Which type of route will require a router to perform a recursive lookup?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** an ultimate route that is using a next hop IP address on a router that is not using CEF***
CCNA 2
Question 309 :
Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of 192.168.12.227?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Send the packet out the Serial0/0/0 interface.***
CCNA 2
Question 310 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issued the command show ip ospf interface on the router R2. What conclusion can be drawn?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R2 has not formed an adjacency with any other router.***
CCNA 2
Question 311 :
Which command will verify the status of both the physical and the virtual interfaces on a switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** show ip interface brief***
CCNA 2
Question 312 :
While configuring RIPv2 on an enterprise network, an engineer enters the command network 192.168.10.0 into router configuration mode. What is the result of entering this command?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The interface of the 192.168.10.0 network is sending only version 2 updates.***
CCNA 2
Question 313 :
What route would have the lowest administrative distance?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** a directly connected network***
CCNA 2
Question 314 :
Fill in the blank. Do not abbreviate. Type a command to exclude the first fifteen useable IP addresses from a DHCPv4 address pool of the network 10.0.15.0/24. Router(config)# ip dhcp
The Answer of this quiz is
*** excluded-address 10.0.15.1 10.0.15.15***
CCNA 2
Question 315 :
What would be the first step in calculating a summarized route for 5 networks?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Write all network numbers in binary.***
CCNA 2
Question 316 :
Refer to the exhibit. If PC1 is sending a packet to PC2 and routing has been configured between the two routers, what will R1 do with the Ethernet frame header attached by PC1?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** remove the Ethernet header and configure a new Layer 2 header before sending it out S0/0/0***
CCNA 2
Question 317 :
In a routing table which route can never be an ultimate route?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** parent route***
CCNA 2
Question 318 :
What is an advantage of configuring a Cisco router as a relay agent?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It can provide relay services for multiple UDP services.***
CCNA 2
Question 319 :
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
config)# ip routing***
(config-if)# no switchport
(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252
config)# ip routing***
CCNA 2
Question 320 :
A production switch is reloaded and finishes with a Switch> prompt. What two facts can be determined? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** A full version of the Cisco IOS was located and loaded.
POST occurred normally.***
POST occurred normally.***
CCNA 2
Question 321 :
A network administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 0 and O flag as 1. Which statement describes the effect of this configuration when a PC tries to configure its IPv6 address?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It should use the information that is contained in the RA message and contact a DHCPv6 server for additional information.***
CCNA 2
Question 322 :
Which method would mitigate a MAC address flooding attack?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** configuring port security***
CCNA 2
Question 323 :
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.***
CCNA 2
Question 324 :
A network administrator is implementing DHCPv6 for the company. The administrator configures a router to send RA messages with M flag as 1 by using the interface command ipv6 nd managed-config-flag. What effect will this configuration have on the operation of the clients?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Clients must use all configuration information that is provided by a DHCPv6 server.***
CCNA 2
Question 325 :
Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router? CCNA2 Chapter 11 v5.03 001
The Answer of this quiz is
*** defines which addresses can be translated***
CCNA 2
Question 326 :
Which three statements describe features of the OSPF topology table? (Choose three.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It is a link-state database that represents the network topology.
When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.
The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.***
When converged, all routers in an area have identical topology tables.
The table can be viewed via the show ip ospf database command.***
CCNA 2
Question 327 :
Refer to the exhibit. The small company shown uses static routing. Users on the R2 LAN have reported a problem with connectivity. What is the issue?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** R1 needs a static route to the R2 LAN.***
CCNA 2
Question 328 :
Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** directly connected static route***
CCNA 2
Question 329 :
An administrator has determined that the traffic from a switch that corresponds to a VLAN is not being received on another switch over a trunk link. What could be the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** allowed VLANs on trunks***
CCNA 2
Question 330 :
What is a valid summary route for IPv6 networks 2001:0DB8:ACAD:4::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:5::/64, 2001:0DB8:ACAD:6::/64, and 2001:0DB8:ACAD:7::/64?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** 2001:0DB8:ACAD:0004::/62***
CCNA 2
Question 331 :
Which software is used for a network administrator to make the initial router configuration securely?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** terminal emulation client software***
CCNA 2
Question 332 :
Refer to the exhibit. What can be determined about port security from the information that is shown?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The port violation mode is the default for any port that has port security enabled.***
CCNA 2
Question 333 :
Refer to the exhibit. Communication between the VLANs is not occurring. What could be the issue?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The Gi1/1 switch port is not in trunking mode.***
CCNA 2
Question 334 :
What is the default DTP mode on Cisco 2960 and 3560 switches?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** dynamic auto***
CCNA 2
Question 335 :
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** the source MAC address and the incoming port***
CCNA 2
Question 336 :
What is different between IPv6 routing table entries compared to IPv4 routing table entries?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** By design IPv6 is classless so all routes are effectively level 1 ultimate routes.***
CCNA 2
Question 337 :
Refer to the exhibit. DLS1 is connected to another switch, DLS2, via a trunk link. A host that is connected to DLS1 is not able to communicate to a host that is connected to DLS2, even though they are both in VLAN 99. Which command should be added to Fa0/1 on DLS1 to correct the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** switchport trunk native vlan 66***
CCNA 2
Question 338 :
Which two statements are true regarding classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
The Answer of this quiz is
*** sends subnet mask information in routing updates
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology***
allows for use of both 192.168.1.0/30 and 192.168.1.16/28 subnets in the same topology***
CCNA 2
Question 339 :
What is a characteristic of a routed port on a Layer 3 switch?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** It is not assigned to a VLAN.***
CCNA 2
Question 340 :
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the configuration of inter-VLAN routing. Users complain that PC2 cannot communicate with PC1. Based on the output, what is the possible cause of the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The encapsulation dot1Q 5 command contains the wrong VLAN. ***
CCNA 2
Question 341 :
What condition is required to enable Layer 3 switching?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The Layer 3 switch must have IP routing enabled.***
CCNA 2
Question 342 :
Which route is the best match for a packet entering a router with a destination address of 10.16.0.2?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** S 10.16.0.0/24 [1/0] via 192.168.0.9***
CCNA 2
Question 343 :
A network administrator configures the interface fa0/0 on the router R1 with the command ip address 172.16.1.254 255.255.255.0. However, when the administrator issues the command show ip route, the routing table does not show the directly connected network. What is the possible cause of the problem?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** The interface fa0/0 has not been activated.***
CCNA 2
Question 344 :
What is the order of packet types used by an OSPF router to establish convergence?
The Answer of this quiz is
*** Hello, DBD, LSR, LSU, LSAck***
